It is clear that Shakespeare’s the Merchant of Venice is ripe with anti-Semitism.
Shylock, the Jew, arises as the villain, and those who speak to or refer to him
often only address him as ‘Jew.’ What I wonder is whether Shylock’s role as the
antagonist arises from his Jewish sensibilities as Shakespeare portrayed him,
or if his determination for that “pound of man’s flesh” arose from how he is
treated by those in the play (I.iii.165).
There is no doubt in my mind
that, in the end, Shylock is stubborn in his demand for Antonio’s debt, yet in
the beginning he had no way of knowing Antonio would lay on difficult times. Though
he could wish it so, Shylock could not have predicted the shipwrecking of all
Antonio’s ventures. Yet, Shylock’s obstinate demand for that pound of flesh comes
after he has lost his daughter and all of the wealth she stole from him when
she eloped with the Christian, Lorenzo. After the discovery of their flight,
Shylock bemoans his losses, and “all the boys in Venice” mock his shows of
grief (II.vii.23). Feeding on Shylock’s distress, almost every character in the
play is against him.
Was Shylock born to be a
villain? Was Shakespeare’s intent as anti-Semitic as it appears? I argue that
the fact that Shylock is a Jew is not as important as the anti-Semitic
atmosphere of Shakespeare’s Venice. Many of the characters in the Merchant of Venice express hatred
towards Shylock, and Solanio and Salerio laugh and make jokes at Shylock’s
expense, his own servant, Launcelot, cannot stand working for him, and Antonio
warns Bassanio that “the devil can cite Scripture for his purpose” and refers
to Shylock as “an evil soul,” “villain,” and an “apple rotten at the heart”
(I.iii.98-101). Shylock lists the ill will that Antonio has expressed toward him,
calling him a “cut-throat dog” and “misbeliever” (I.iii.111), and Antonio not
only does not deny this, but states that he is “like to call” Shylock those
names again, and “to spet” and “to spurn” him again (I.iii.130-131). Face with
this hatred and distain, is it that surprising that Shylock turns villain, and
seeks revenge on the man who shows him no compassion and takes away customers?
By the time of the trial,
everyone in town is against Shylock, and even the Duke, while forced to uphold
the law, fights with Shylock and asks for him to quit his bond and take the money.
In the end, Shylock is tricked into losing everything. I argue that, though
Shylock ends a villain, he does not start as so, and his zeal to kill Antonio
was not born from the fact that he was Jewish, but rather a result of a series
of incidents of anti-Semitism directed towards him, and the elopement of his
daughter. I do not here defend what Shylock did and tried to do, but rather
offer an explanation of the development of his character.
1 comment:
I agree that Shylock did not begin as a villain, but a person can only take so much abuse until they turn against the world. His deal with Antonio was his chance to get even with this man who abused him and insulted his heritage. I can understand why he would want to take this opportunity to get his revenge for all the abuse he has taken. He may have taken it a little too far by asking for a pound of flesh which will ultimately lead to his downfall. It can not be denied that Shylock is the villain of the play, but the motivations behind his actions do make the reader feel a little pity for the man.
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