STD's galore.

Having read this play in the past, and because I am already familiar with the plot, what stuck out to me the most in reading Measure for Measure a second time was the use of language. In particular, I noticed Shakespeare's crafty use of double meanings as they relate to sexual puns concerning syphilis. For example, in Act 1, Scene 2, the First Gentleman calls Antonio "a three-piled piece" (1.2.30), indicating that he has the rectal sores associated with syphilis. Later, when discussing how many sexual diseases Lucio has contracted under Mistress Overdone's roof, Lucio states that he has spent "A French crown more" (1.2.46) on the purchasing of prostitutes, alluding not only to monetary value, but also to the nickname for a syphilitic sore. Furthermore, Lucio jokes to the First Gentleman that his "bones are hollow, impiety has made a feast of thee" (1.2.50-1), suggesting that he has syphilis, which has caused his bones to become brittle. Upon the entrance of Miss Overdone, the First Gentleman greets her by asking, "How now, which of your hips has the most profound sciatica?" (1.2.52-3), indicating that Overdone has a venereal disease which causes her to have an ache in the sciatic vein of her hip. Finally, when Pompey is trying to comfort Overdone later on in this scene, he describes her as "you that have worn your eyes almost out in the service" (1.2.90). The footnotes explain that "eye" was slang for "female genital" and that blindness is another symptom of syphilis. Yet again, Shakespeare makes sly mention of sexually transmitted diseases while not blatantly saying so. All of these lines are packed into the space of two pages, resulting in a rapid-fire delivery of witty banter amongst the gentleman that one has to pay close attention to in order to catch.

This study of language made me wonder why Shakespeare chose to focus so heavily on the disease of syphilis: was it the most common, well-known STD at the time? Did Shakespeare - dare I say - have syphilis himself, and is that why he knows so many dirty details about the disease? Did he wish to appeal to an audience of bawdy, lower class citizens who would be able to acknowledge and appreciate this humor? If so, how does this color the story line of Angelo and Isabella with regards to nobility's use - or misuse - of power? It seems that the presentation of characters in this play is slanted to please an audience of poorer means; the likable, humorous characters are licentious sinners of the common rabble (such as Lucio, Pompey, and Mistress Overdone), whereas the stiff, strict, and secretly sinful characters are those of the upper class (such as Angelo). I imagine that those of wealth and "high moral standards" who watched this play in Elizabethan times objected to the presentation of nobility in such a poor light, while shameful sexual humor was illuminated and popularized (or perhaps they secretly enjoyed it!).

Of course, Shakespeare was known for inserting sexual puns into just about any play; it seems as if this play on words was his own secret code that he embedded into the language, to see how many people could decipher it. It is also ironic, and certainly purposeful, that Shakespeare named the veiled villain "Angelo," thereby ascribing a saintly quality to a clandestinely lustful man. Also interesting to note is that the name "Isabella" translates to "God's promise" or "God is my oath." Clearly, Shakespeare wanted to reveal something, be it hidden or obvious, about his characters through his clever use of language.